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Long term complications of treatment with thyroid replacement medication like levothyroxine include which of the following?
A Obesity
B Osteoporosis
(C) Hypoglycemia
D Memory Loss
Question 2
1.5 Points
A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:
A Concentration will produce therapeutic effects
B Concentration will produce an adverse response
Time between doses must be shortened
D Duration of action of the drug is too long
Long term complications of treatment with thyroid replacement medication like levothyroxine include which of the following?
A Obesity
B Osteoporosis
(C) Hypoglycemia
D Memory Loss
Question 2
1.5 Points
A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:
A Concentration will produce therapeutic effects
B Concentration will produce an adverse response
Time between doses must be shortened
D Duration of action of the drug is too long
Question 77
Which of the following drug administration routes typically results in the fastest onset of action?
A) Oral
B Subcutaneous
Intramuscular
Intravenous
Question 78
Which of the following medications is used to treat motion sickness?
A Scopolamine (Transderm Scop)
B Ondansetron (Zofran)
Loperamide (Immodium)
D Ranitidine (Zantac)
1.5 Points
1.5 Points
The benefits to the patient of having an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) prescriber include:
A
Nurses know more about Pharmacology than other prescribers because they take it both in their basic nursing program and in their APRN program.
B Nurses care for the patient from a holistic approach and include the patient in decision-making regarding their care.
APRNs are less likely to prescribe narcotics and other controlled substances.
APRNs are able to prescribe independently in all states, whereas a physician’s assistant needs to have a physician supervising their practice.
Question 76
Drugs used to relax the patient and promote sleep are classified as:
(A) sedative-hypnotics
B) antidepressants
(C) antipsychotics
(D) neuroleptics
1.5 Points
A patient has taken a narcotic analgesic for chronic pain for several months. At a follow-up appointment, the provider notes that the patient has been taking more than the prescribed dosage. The patient has normal vital signs, is awake and alert, and reports mild pain. What does the provider suspect is responsible for the patient’s response?
A This patient exhibits a negative placebo effect with a reduced response to the drug.
B This patient has developed tachyphylaxis because of repeated exposure to the drug.
C
This patient has developed pharmacodynamic tolerance, which has increased the minimal effective concentration (MEC) needed for analgesic effect.
DThis patient has increased hepatic enzyme production as a result of prolonged exposure to the drug.
Question 74
1.5 Points
Benzodiazepines such as diazepam (Valium) act by increasing the inhibitory effects which of the following neurotransmitter?
A acetylcholine
B dopamine
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
Question 72
Antipsychotic drugs can result in the production of abnormal movement patterns known as:
A intra-articular symptoms
B extrapyramidal symptoms
spinocerebellar symptoms
(D) malignant hyperthermia
A 22-year-old female presents with treatment-resistant nodulocystic acne. You are considering initiating isotretinoin (Accutane). Which of the following steps is required before starting this medication?
A Enroll the patient in the iPLEDGE program and obtain a negative pregnancy test
B Refer the patient to dermatology for comedone extraction
Prescribe isotretinoin (Accutane) with a 6-month supply to avoid gaps in care
D Consult with esthetician and discuss medication side effects and precautions
Question 71
1.5 Points
A patient developed confusion, elevated heart rate, fever, tremors, agitation, and dilated pupils. The patient is taking Escitalopram (Lexapro) and recently added St. John’s wort. Which of the following is the most likely concern related to this issue?
A Viral illness
(B) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Delirium related to St. John’s wort
Serotonin syndrome
Which of the following medications is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) commonly used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
A Omeprazole (Prilosec)
B Ranitidine (Zantac)
C) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Calcium Carbonate (Tums)
Question 69
Therapeutic goals when prescribing include(s):
A Curative
B Palliative
Preventative
D) All of the above
1.5 Points
Which of the following is a potential dermatologic reaction with anticonvulsant medications such as lamotrigine (Lamictal)?
A Steven-Johnson Syndrome
B Dermatitis
Psoriasis
D) Alopecia
Question 67
NSAIDS work to block which of the following?
A Leukotrienes
B) Prostaglandins
(C) Phospholipase
Glutathione S-transferase
1.5 Points
Which of the following patients would be the best candidate to receive a NSAID for pain control?
A 78 year old with history glaucoma
B 60 year old with history of gastritis
52 year old with history of cardiac stents
D 45 year old with history uterine fibroids
Question 65
1.5 Points
A patient reports mild nausea within an hour after taking the first two doses of a newly approved medication. Nausea is not listed among the known side effects of this drug. What instructions will the provider give the patient?
A “Take the next dose with food and call the office if nausea reoccurs or if other symptoms develop.”
B “Discontinue the medication, and a substitute will be prescribed.”
“Report the situation to the manufacturer to receive recommendations about continuing the drug.”
D “I’ll prescribe an antiemetic to counter this drug’s effects.”
Question 62
Which of the following is a common side effect of budesonide (Pulmicort)?
(A) Tachycardia
B Dry mouth
Oral thrush
Shortness of breath
Question 63
Which of the following is the maximum daily dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol)?
A 2000 mg
B 3000mg
4000mg
D 5000mg
1.5 Points
1.5 Points
Anticonvulsants such as Carbamazepine (Tegretol) may be used as mood stabilizers.
A True
B False
Clear selection
Question 61
1.5 Points
A 9-week pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of the following antithyroid medications is considered the preferred treatment during the first trimester of pregnancy?
A Methimazole
B Propylthiouracil (PTU)
Levothyroxine
Radioactive iodine
Question 58
What is the primary mechanism of action of the hydantoins, such as phenytoin (Dilantin)?
A GABA Mechanism
B Na+ Channel
NMDA
D Potassium Pump Exchange
Question 59
When determining drug treatment, the NP prescriber should:
A Use evidence-based guidelines
B Rely on personal experience
Utilize the newest drug formulations
Consult with colleagues on treatment decisions
1.!
1.
The nurse practitioner is considering adding a long acting B2-agonist (LABA) for asthma management. Which of the following statements is the most accurate to consider when prescribing LABA for asthma?
A The patient must rinse mouth after each use of LABA inhaler.
BA LABA is added on with an inhaled corticosteroid.
The LABA can be used as a rescue medication when a SABA is not available.
DA LABA should not be prescribed when treating asthma.
Question 57
1.5 Points
The nurse practitioner is managing a patient currently taking memantine (Namenda) 5mg daily. The patient is continuing to experience troublesome symptoms with memory and cognition, which of the following would be the next best step for pharmacologic management?
A Weekly titrate up on the medication
B Stop the medication
Add on adjuvant therapy
D Continue with the current regimen
Question 54
The first-line therapy for mild-persistent asthma is:
A High-dose montelukast
B Theophylline
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids
Long-acting beta 2 agonists
Question 55
1.5 Points
1.5 Points
A nurse practitioner is initiating treatment for a patient with acute pain following surgery. The treatment plan includes oxycodone. Which of the following is a legal requirement when prescribing this medication?
A The prescription must be sent electronically and include the prescriber’s DEA number.
B The prescription can be verbally communicated to the pharmacy.
CA supervising physician must co-sign the prescription in all states.
The prescription must be written on a triplicate prescription pad.
Opioids activate which of the following receptors?
A Delta
B) Gamma
Mu
D) Beta
Question 53
Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
The State Board of Pharmacy
D The State Board of Nursing for each state
When prescribing medications, patient education should include which of the following?
A Discuss expected adverse drug reactions
B Written instructions
Safe medication storage
D Medication disposal
E All of the above
Question 51
Beta-2 agonists are useful in the treatment of asthma.
A True
B) False
A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:
A Begins with determining the severity of asthma and assessing asthma control
B is used when asthma is severe and requires daily steroids
C Allows for each provider to determine their personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients
Is not available for childhood asthma management
1.5 Points
Clear selection
Question 49
1.5 Points
The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 68-year-old patient with COPD who complains of ongoing exertional shortness of breath despite daily use of prescribed inhalers. Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the NP?
Evaluate the appropriate inhaler technique
B Review the order of medication administration
Assess the inhaler canister/device
(D) All of the above
Question 46
Which of the following medications is most likely to cause the side effect of hypoglycemia?
(A) Glucophage (metformin)
(B) Glucotrol (glipizide)
Actos (pioglitazone)
D Januvia (sitagliptin)
Question 47
A medical condition that can predispose a patient to adverse drug reactions includes which of the following?
A Chronic Kidney Disease
B Asthma
C) Migraines
D Pneumonia
1.5 POINTS
1.5 Points
The provider prepares a patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes for hospital discharge. Which action by the provider will best support the patient’s ability to manage medication therapy effectively?
A Discussing methods of storing insulin and discarding syringes
B Giving information about how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements
Asking the patient to demonstrate how to measure and administer insulin
D Teaching the patient about the long-term consequences of poor diabetes control
Question 45
Which of the following is a black box warning for fluoroquinolones?
A hepatic failure
B tendon rupture
renal failure
D Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
1.5 Points
The provider prescribes hydrocodone with acetaminophen for a patient’s post-surgical pain. What instruction will the prescriber include regarding alcohol intake?
A “If you plan to drink alcohol, I will order acetaminophen without hydrocodone for your pain.”
B “I’d suggest that you substitute ibuprofen for pain on days when you plan to drink alcohol.”
“You should avoid drinking alcohol while taking the pain medication I’ve ordered.”
D “You should limit your alcohol intake to no more than two servings of alcohol daily while on the pain medication.”
Question 43
1.5 Points
Which of the following antibiotics is commonly used to decolonize pregnant women that are positive for group B streptococcus?
(A) Cephalosporins
B Penicillins
(C) Fluoroquinolones
Macrolides
Question 40
True or False: Steroids can induce leukocytosis.
A True
B) False
Question 41
Which medication is most appropriate to treat gestational diabetes?
(A) Humalog (lispro)
(B) Actos (pioglitazone)
Trulicity (dulaglutide)
Glucotrol (glipizide)
1.5 Points
Clear selection
1.5 Points
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is prescribed a new medication that may increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse practitioner to take?
A Monitor the patient’s blood glucose levels closely.
B Adjust the patient’s blood pressure medication dose.
(C) Discontinue the patient’s diabetes medication.
Prescribe a new medication to counteract the hypoglycemic effects.
Question 39
Which class of medication can cause QT prolongation, tendonitis, and seizure lowering threshold?
(A) Aminoglycosides
(B) Fluroquinolones
C) Cephalosporins
(D) Penicillin
1.5 Points
The nurse practitioner is treating a Type 2 Diabetic patient with BMI 36. Which of the following medication class would be the most appropriate selection to help manage diabetes and provide weight loss?
(A) DPP-4 Inhibitor
(B) SGLT2 Inhibitor
CGLP-1 Agonist
D Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitor
Question 37
When the NP starts insulin in type I diabetic patient, what is the formulation?
A 0.6 units-0.8 units/kg/day
B) 0.3-0.5 units/kg/day
basal insulin at 20 units per day
D initiate short acting rapid insulin based upon blood sugars
1.5 Points
Which of the following antibiotic eye treatment is most appropriate to treat conjunctivitis in an individual that wears contact lenses?
A Ciprofloxacin
(B) Azithromycin
C) Tobramycin
Sulfacetamide
Question 35
MMR, polio, and varicella are considered safe vaccines to receive during pregnancy.
A True
B False
Question 32
Before prescribing metformin, the nurse practitioner should assess which of the following lab?
(A) AST/ALT
B Serum Creatinine
C-peptide
D Urinalysis
Question 33
1.5 Points
Clear selection
1.5 Points
1.5 Points
When prescribing drugs with a narrow therapeutic index, what intervention does the provider take to decrease risk to the patient?
A Schedule drug administration intervals that exceed the drug’s half-life.
B Order the medication to be administered by the intravenous route.
CMonitor the patient’s plasma drug levels at regular intervals.
D Teach the patient that optimal outcomes will require adherence to the medication regimen.
Which of the following medications is considered the first-line to treat atrial fibrillation?
A Amiodarone
B Furosemide
Nitroglycerin
D) Digoxin
Question 31
Metformin is a primary choice of drug to treat hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes because it:
A Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
B Decreases peripheral glucose utilization
Substitutes for insulin usually secreted by the pancreas
Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
The nurse practitioner is reviewing the glucose log of a Type 2 Diabetic patient. The NP noticed the glucose check before dinner is consistently elevated. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for this patient?
A Adjust lunchtime insulin dosing to improve coverage.
B Eliminate morning NPH dosing
Add a long-acting basal insulin dose at noon
Reduce calorie intake at lunchtime meal
Question 29
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to treat a corneal ulcer?
A Vidarabine ointment
B Erythromycin ointment
Naphazoline solution
D) Sulfacetamide solution
1.5 Points
The nurse practitioner is prescribing a medication that has the potential for hepatotoxicity. What would be a priority action for the
NP?
A Order baseline liver function tests
B Check a BUN and creatinine before starting the med
Monitor the CBC periodically while on the medication
D Assess drug toxicity levels in one week
Question 27
1.5 Points
A 24 year-old patient presents with left ear pain and the nurse practitioner diagnosed otitis externa. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A Medrol Dose Pack
(B) Penicillin PO
Debrox otic drops
D) Ciprofloxin otic drops
Which of the following elements is required when writing a complete and accurate prescription?
A Patient weight and medication cost
B Pharmacy name and phone number
Diagnosis code and insurance provider
D Medication name, dosage, and route
Question 24
Which of the following statements best defines the therapeutic index (TI) of a medication?
A A larger TI is safer than a smaller TI
B A smaller TI is safer than a larger TI
The TI leads to a longer half-life
D A larger volume distribution is a less desirable TI
1.5 Points
Which of the following is a common geriatric alteration that the nurse practitioner must consider when prescribing medication?
A Decreased gastric pH
B Decreased Gl motility and emptying
Increased GI blood flow
D Increased plasma protein binding
Question 22
1.5 Points
A pediatric patient developed a pruritic, dull red, maculopapular rash on the chest and neck after starting ampicillin. Which action is the most important to reduce the patient’s risk for injury?
A Discontinue the ampicillin
B Prescribe azithromycin
Give an antihistamine for the itching
D Order allergy testing
Question 19
Which class of angiotensin blocking drugs is most commonly associated with a nonproductive, nagging cough?
(A) Renin inhibitors
B ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin antagonists
D Calcium Channel Blockers
Question 20
Which of the following underlying conditions would be contraindicated when prescribing propranolol (Inderal)?
A Erectile dysfunction
B Type 2 diabetes
Supraventricular tachycardia
D) Asthma
1.5 Points
1.5 Points
Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:
A After the second dose
B After four to five half-lives
When the patient feels the full effect of the drug
D) One hour after IV administration
Question 18
1.5 Points
When prescribing a statin HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, initial evaluation when starting the medication should include checking which of the following lab test?
(A) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
(B) Potassium
Bilirubin
D) Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
Which of the following is a side effect of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor such as Rivastigmine (Exelon)?
A Flu-like symptoms, constipation, restlessness.
B Dry mouth, tachycardia, pupil constriction, impotence.
Excessive sweating, tachycardia, pupil dilation
Nausea, dizziness, weight loss
Which of the following is a side effect of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor such as Rivastigmine (Exelon)?
A Flu-like symptoms, constipation, restlessness.
B Dry mouth, tachycardia, pupil constriction, impotence.
Excessive sweating, tachycardia, pupil dilation
D Nausea, dizziness, weight loss
Question 16
Statin drugs such as atorvastatin (Lipitor) and simvastatin (Zocor) inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme, thereby production of
A decreasing; cholesterol
B increasing: low-density lipoproteins
decreasing; high-density lipoproteins
D) decreasing; triglycerides
When selecting the anticoagulant options the patient history and preferences should be taken into account.
A True
B) False
1.5 Points
the
Clear selection
146 minutes remaining Γ
88 OF 100 QUESTIONS REMAINING
A True
B) False
Question 14
Match the mechanism of action to the correct class of anti-hypertensive medication.
Prompts
ACE Inhibitors
Answers
Select match
2 Beta Blockers
3
Thiazide Diuretics
Competitively inhibit Beta-1 receptors
Prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
Inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption
Which of the following is the correct format for a prescription being sent to the pharmacy?
A Lisinopril PO daily x 7 days, #7
B Lisinopril 20mg QD, Dispense 30
Lisinopril PO QD, Dispense 30, 3 refills
DLisinopril 10mg PO daily, Dispense 30, No Refills
Question 12
Jenny has type 2 diabetes and a high triglyceride level. She has been prescribed gemfibrozil (Lopid) to treat her hypertriglyceridemia. A history of which of the following might contraindicate the use of this drug?
A Gallbladder disease
B Reactive airway disease
CInflammatory disorders
D) Allergy to aspirin
Clear selection
1.5 Points
1.5 Points
Your patient follows up one week after being diagnosed and treated for depression with Fluoxetine (Prozac). He complains of an upset stomach and nausea. How should the NP respond?
A Order a workup for a new gastrointestinal problem
B Educate the patient that this is a common side effect and it should resolve within 2 weeks
Give the patient precautions for a viral illness and return in 1 week if not better
D Inform the patient that this is an abnormal side effect and stop the medication right away
Question 10
What is the antidote for heparin?
A Vitamin K
B Platelet infusion
Protamine sulfate
(D) Plasma exchange
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action for heparin?
A Directly inhibits thrombin without the need for antithrombin
B Inhibits the P2Y12 ADP receptor on platelets
Inhibits the activation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X
Binds to antithrombin resulting in the inhibition of factor II and X
Question 8
What is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin)?
A Vitamin K
B Platelet infusion
Protamine sulfate
D Plasma exchange
1.5 Points
Digitalis (digoxin) exerts its primary mechanical effect by the sodium-potassium pump on the myocardial cell membrane, which leads directly to intracellular sodium concentration.
A stimulating; increased
B) inhibiting; increased
stimulating; decreased
Dinhibiting; decreased
Question 6
Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B Bypass the hepatic.circulation
Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little, if any, desired action
D Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
1.5 Points
Mr. Morris complains of feeling down, loss of interest in activities, fatigue, restlessness, and decreased appetite. When discussing treatment options for him, you know that first-line medication treatment for depression is:
A Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)
B Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor (SNRI)
Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA)
(D) Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI)
Question 4
1.5 Points
Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day’s dosage is twice that of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
A Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
B Requires four to five half-lives to attain
Is influenced by renal function
D Minimizes the drug circulating to the target tissues
Question 89
Which of the following best describes pharmacokinetics?
The study of the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs on the body
B The study of the interactions between drugs and their receptors
The study of the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs in the body
The study of how drugs are manufactured and formulated for clinical use
Question 90
Upon reaching the brain, most antidepressant drugs affect
A amine neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and serotonin
B amino acids such as leucine and isoleucine
acetylcholine
D cerebral blood flow
307 Exam 3
1.5 Points
1.5 Points
1
Matching 2 points
Match the abnormal placental condition with it’s definition
Marginal placenta previa
Morbidly adherant placenta
Complete placenta previa
Placental Abruption
The invasion of the placenta into the ut
Detachment of the placenta from the u
Abnormal placental implantation that completely
Abnormal placetal implantation that is opening
What are the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women?
A The percentage of fat differs between genders.
B Body temperature varies between genders.
Renal excretion is different between genders.
Muscle mass is greater in women.
Question 88
Tardive dyskinesia is often a concerning side effect of antipsychotic drugs because it can cause which of the following?
A muscle atrophy
B cardiac dysrhythmias
peripheral neuropathies
irreversible muscle movements
Which of the following best describes pharmacodynamics?
(A) The study of how the body affects a drug
B The study of how a drug affects the body
The study of how a drug is metabolized by the body
The study of how a drug is excreted by the body
Question 86
1.5 Points
1.5 Points
A patient with a history of poorly controlled hypertension and a history of pelvic inflammatory disease two weeks ago presents for a contraception consult. Which of the following would the NP suggest?
A Vaginal ring
B Levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena)
Nexplanon
D Paragard IUD
Newer or second-generation antidepressants such as fluoxetine (Prozac), paroxetine (Paxil), and sertraline (Zoloft) selectively affect
reuptake at certain CNS synapses.
A dopamine
B acetylcholine
(C) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin) (5HTP)
gama-amino butyric acid (GABA)
Question 84
1.5 Points
Patients taking relatively high doses of the more potent antipsychotics may experience catatonia, stupor, rigidity, tremors, and fever. These symptoms comprise a serious disorder known as:
A Serotonin syndrome
B Brown-Sequard syndrome
Charcot’s syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:
A Topical corticosteroids and emollients
B Topical corticosteroids only
Topical antipruritics
D Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations
Question 82
Which of the following is a key consideration when prescribing antibiotics to a patient?
A Selecting a broad-spectrum antibiotic
B Prescribing a high dose to ensure efficacy
Prescribing the antibiotic for the shortest effective duration
D Administering the antibiotic via the IV route whenever possible
Which of the following medications is a prokinetic agent that can be used to treat GERD by improving gastric emptying and reducing reflux?
A Famotidine (Pepcid)
B Omeprazole (Prilosec)
(C) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
D Esomeprazole (Nexium)
Question 80
Treatment goals in prescribing should:
A Always be curative
B Be patient-centered
Be convenient for the provider
D Focus on the cost of therapy
1.5 Points
A 44-year-old smoker with a history of migraines with aura has been on birth control pills in the past and wants to start them again today. How do you approach her plan of care?
(A)
Educate the patient on the common side effects of oral contraceptives, send in a prescription, and have her follow up in a
month.
B Inform her that she is not a candidate due to her co-morbidities and offer her the Levonorgestrel IUD.
Tell her she is approaching menopause and does not need to worry about contraception.
D Offer her the birth control patch instead because it is safer for her with her medical history.
Question 92
At what age is the threshold that contraception becomes contraindicated for smokers?
A 30
B 35
45
D 50
1.5 Points
Question 93
What is the mechanism of action for the H2 Receptor antagonist?
A covers and protects ulceration site
B) neutralizes stomach acid
Cinhibit H2 receptors on the parietal cells
D releases proinflammatory mediators
Question 94
Which drug class selectively antagonizes serotonin 5-HT3 receptors reducing nausea and vomiting?
A ondansetron (Zofran)
B) benadryl
C) metoclopramide (Reglan)
All of the above
In patients with known cardiac disease and the elderly, it is important to initiate levothyroxine slower and at lower doses than in a younger adult without cardiac disease?
A True
B False
Question 96
What hormones are being suppressed with contraceptives?
A FSH & LH
BTSH & Prolactin
Estrogen & Progesterone
D GnRH & Testosterone
Clear selection
1.5 Points
In patients with known cardiac disease and the elderly, it is important to initiate levothyroxine slower and at lower doses than in a younger adult without cardiac disease?
A True
B False
Question 96
What hormones are being suppressed with contraceptives?
A FSH & LH
BTSH & Prolactin
Estrogen & Progesterone
D GnRH & Testosterone
Question 97
Which of the following is the best birth control option for a post-partum breastfeeding patient?
A Birth control is not needed when breastfeeding
B Combined hormonal contraceptives
C Progestin-only method
D Estrogen only method
Question 98
Which of the following medications is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance?
A Tramadol
(B) Diazepam
C Alprazolam
D Oxycodone
Clear selection
1.5 Points
1.5 Points
1.5 Points