Advanced Pharmacology and Prescriptive Practice – NURS 307 Exam 3 (Spring 2025) Examsharks

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Long term complications of treatment with thyroid replacement medication like levothyroxine include which of the following?

A Obesity

B Osteoporosis

D Memory Loss

Question 2

1.5 Points

A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:

A Concentration will produce therapeutic effects

B Concentration will produce an adverse response

Time between doses must be shortened

D Duration of action of the drug is too long

Long term complications of treatment with thyroid replacement medication like levothyroxine include which of the following?

A Obesity

B Osteoporosis

D Memory Loss

Question 2

1.5 Points

A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:

A Concentration will produce therapeutic effects

B Concentration will produce an adverse response

Time between doses must be shortened

D Duration of action of the drug is too long

Question 77

Which of the following drug administration routes typically results in the fastest onset of action?

A) Oral

B Subcutaneous

Intramuscular

Intravenous

Question 78

Which of the following medications is used to treat motion sickness?

A Scopolamine (Transderm Scop)

B Ondansetron (Zofran)

Loperamide (Immodium)

D Ranitidine (Zantac)

1.5 Points

The benefits to the patient of having an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) prescriber include:

Nurses know more about Pharmacology than other prescribers because they take it both in their basic nursing program and in their APRN program.

B Nurses care for the patient from a holistic approach and include the patient in decision-making regarding their care.

APRNs are less likely to prescribe narcotics and other controlled substances.

APRNs are able to prescribe independently in all states, whereas a physician’s assistant needs to have a physician supervising their practice.

Question 76

Drugs used to relax the patient and promote sleep are classified as:

(A) sedative-hypnotics

B) antidepressants

(D) neuroleptics

1.5 Points

A patient has taken a narcotic analgesic for chronic pain for several months. At a follow-up appointment, the provider notes that the patient has been taking more than the prescribed dosage. The patient has normal vital signs, is awake and alert, and reports mild pain. What does the provider suspect is responsible for the patient’s response?

A This patient exhibits a negative placebo effect with a reduced response to the drug.

B This patient has developed tachyphylaxis because of repeated exposure to the drug.

This patient has developed pharmacodynamic tolerance, which has increased the minimal effective concentration (MEC) needed for analgesic effect.

DThis patient has increased hepatic enzyme production as a result of prolonged exposure to the drug.

Question 74

1.5 Points

Benzodiazepines such as diazepam (Valium) act by increasing the inhibitory effects which of the following neurotransmitter?

A acetylcholine

B dopamine

gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)

Question 72

Antipsychotic drugs can result in the production of abnormal movement patterns known as:

A intra-articular symptoms

B extrapyramidal symptoms

spinocerebellar symptoms

(D) malignant hyperthermia

A 22-year-old female presents with treatment-resistant nodulocystic acne. You are considering initiating isotretinoin (Accutane). Which of the following steps is required before starting this medication?

A Enroll the patient in the iPLEDGE program and obtain a negative pregnancy test

B Refer the patient to dermatology for comedone extraction

Prescribe isotretinoin (Accutane) with a 6-month supply to avoid gaps in care

D Consult with esthetician and discuss medication side effects and precautions

Question 71

1.5 Points

A patient developed confusion, elevated heart rate, fever, tremors, agitation, and dilated pupils. The patient is taking Escitalopram (Lexapro) and recently added St. John’s wort. Which of the following is the most likely concern related to this issue?

A Viral illness

(B) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Delirium related to St. John’s wort

Serotonin syndrome

Which of the following medications is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) commonly used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

A Omeprazole (Prilosec)

B Ranitidine (Zantac)

C) Metoclopramide (Reglan)

Calcium Carbonate (Tums)

Question 69

Therapeutic goals when prescribing include(s):

A Curative

B Palliative

Preventative

D) All of the above

1.5 Points

Which of the following is a potential dermatologic reaction with anticonvulsant medications such as lamotrigine (Lamictal)?

A Steven-Johnson Syndrome

B Dermatitis

Psoriasis

D) Alopecia

Question 67

NSAIDS work to block which of the following?

A Leukotrienes

B) Prostaglandins

Glutathione S-transferase

1.5 Points

Which of the following patients would be the best candidate to receive a NSAID for pain control?

A 78 year old with history glaucoma

B 60 year old with history of gastritis

52 year old with history of cardiac stents

D 45 year old with history uterine fibroids

Question 65

1.5 Points

A patient reports mild nausea within an hour after taking the first two doses of a newly approved medication. Nausea is not listed among the known side effects of this drug. What instructions will the provider give the patient?

A “Take the next dose with food and call the office if nausea reoccurs or if other symptoms develop.”

B “Discontinue the medication, and a substitute will be prescribed.”

“Report the situation to the manufacturer to receive recommendations about continuing the drug.”

D “I’ll prescribe an antiemetic to counter this drug’s effects.”

Question 62

Which of the following is a common side effect of budesonide (Pulmicort)?

(A) Tachycardia

B Dry mouth

Oral thrush

Shortness of breath

Question 63

Which of the following is the maximum daily dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol)?

A 2000 mg

B 3000mg

4000mg

D 5000mg

1.5 Points

Anticonvulsants such as Carbamazepine (Tegretol) may be used as mood stabilizers.

A True

B False

Clear selection

Question 61

1.5 Points

A 9-week pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of the following antithyroid medications is considered the preferred treatment during the first trimester of pregnancy?

A Methimazole

B Propylthiouracil (PTU)

Levothyroxine

Radioactive iodine

Question 58

What is the primary mechanism of action of the hydantoins, such as phenytoin (Dilantin)?

A GABA Mechanism

B Na+ Channel

NMDA

D Potassium Pump Exchange

Question 59

When determining drug treatment, the NP prescriber should:

A Use evidence-based guidelines

B Rely on personal experience

Utilize the newest drug formulations

Consult with colleagues on treatment decisions

1.!

The nurse practitioner is considering adding a long acting B2-agonist (LABA) for asthma management. Which of the following statements is the most accurate to consider when prescribing LABA for asthma?

A The patient must rinse mouth after each use of LABA inhaler.

BA LABA is added on with an inhaled corticosteroid.

The LABA can be used as a rescue medication when a SABA is not available.

DA LABA should not be prescribed when treating asthma.

Question 57

1.5 Points

The nurse practitioner is managing a patient currently taking memantine (Namenda) 5mg daily. The patient is continuing to experience troublesome symptoms with memory and cognition, which of the following would be the next best step for pharmacologic management?

A Weekly titrate up on the medication

B Stop the medication

Add on adjuvant therapy

D Continue with the current regimen

Question 54

The first-line therapy for mild-persistent asthma is:

A High-dose montelukast

B Theophylline

Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids

Long-acting beta 2 agonists

Question 55

1.5 Points

1.5 Points

A nurse practitioner is initiating treatment for a patient with acute pain following surgery. The treatment plan includes oxycodone. Which of the following is a legal requirement when prescribing this medication?

A The prescription must be sent electronically and include the prescriber’s DEA number.

B The prescription can be verbally communicated to the pharmacy.

CA supervising physician must co-sign the prescription in all states.

The prescription must be written on a triplicate prescription pad.

Opioids activate which of the following receptors?

A Delta

B) Gamma

D) Beta

Question 53

Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:

A The National Council of State Boards of Nursing

B The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration

The State Board of Pharmacy

D The State Board of Nursing for each state

When prescribing medications, patient education should include which of the following?

A Discuss expected adverse drug reactions

B Written instructions

Safe medication storage

D Medication disposal

E All of the above

Question 51

Beta-2 agonists are useful in the treatment of asthma.

A True

B) False

A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:

A Begins with determining the severity of asthma and assessing asthma control

B is used when asthma is severe and requires daily steroids

C Allows for each provider to determine their personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients

Is not available for childhood asthma management

1.5 Points

Clear selection

Question 49

1.5 Points

The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 68-year-old patient with COPD who complains of ongoing exertional shortness of breath despite daily use of prescribed inhalers. Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the NP?

Evaluate the appropriate inhaler technique

B Review the order of medication administration

Assess the inhaler canister/device

(D) All of the above

Question 46

Which of the following medications is most likely to cause the side effect of hypoglycemia?

(A) Glucophage (metformin)

(B) Glucotrol (glipizide)

Actos (pioglitazone)

D Januvia (sitagliptin)

Question 47

A medical condition that can predispose a patient to adverse drug reactions includes which of the following?

A Chronic Kidney Disease

B Asthma

C) Migraines

D Pneumonia

1.5 POINTS

1.5 Points

The provider prepares a patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes for hospital discharge. Which action by the provider will best support the patient’s ability to manage medication therapy effectively?

A Discussing methods of storing insulin and discarding syringes

B Giving information about how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements

Asking the patient to demonstrate how to measure and administer insulin

D Teaching the patient about the long-term consequences of poor diabetes control

Question 45

Which of the following is a black box warning for fluoroquinolones?

A hepatic failure

B tendon rupture

renal failure

D Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

1.5 Points

The provider prescribes hydrocodone with acetaminophen for a patient’s post-surgical pain. What instruction will the prescriber include regarding alcohol intake?

A “If you plan to drink alcohol, I will order acetaminophen without hydrocodone for your pain.”

B “I’d suggest that you substitute ibuprofen for pain on days when you plan to drink alcohol.”

“You should avoid drinking alcohol while taking the pain medication I’ve ordered.”

D “You should limit your alcohol intake to no more than two servings of alcohol daily while on the pain medication.”

Question 43

1.5 Points

Which of the following antibiotics is commonly used to decolonize pregnant women that are positive for group B streptococcus?

(A) Cephalosporins

B Penicillins

Macrolides

Question 40

True or False: Steroids can induce leukocytosis.

A True

B) False

Question 41

Which medication is most appropriate to treat gestational diabetes?

(A) Humalog (lispro)

(B) Actos (pioglitazone)

Trulicity (dulaglutide)

Glucotrol (glipizide)

1.5 Points

Clear selection

1.5 Points

A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is prescribed a new medication that may increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse practitioner to take?

A Monitor the patient’s blood glucose levels closely.

B Adjust the patient’s blood pressure medication dose.

Prescribe a new medication to counteract the hypoglycemic effects.

Question 39

Which class of medication can cause QT prolongation, tendonitis, and seizure lowering threshold?

(A) Aminoglycosides

(B) Fluroquinolones

C) Cephalosporins

(D) Penicillin

1.5 Points

The nurse practitioner is treating a Type 2 Diabetic patient with BMI 36. Which of the following medication class would be the most appropriate selection to help manage diabetes and provide weight loss?

(A) DPP-4 Inhibitor

(B) SGLT2 Inhibitor

CGLP-1 Agonist

D Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitor

Question 37

When the NP starts insulin in type I diabetic patient, what is the formulation?

A 0.6 units-0.8 units/kg/day

B) 0.3-0.5 units/kg/day

basal insulin at 20 units per day

D initiate short acting rapid insulin based upon blood sugars

1.5 Points

Which of the following antibiotic eye treatment is most appropriate to treat conjunctivitis in an individual that wears contact lenses?

A Ciprofloxacin

(B) Azithromycin

C) Tobramycin

Sulfacetamide

Question 35

MMR, polio, and varicella are considered safe vaccines to receive during pregnancy.

A True

B False

Question 32

Before prescribing metformin, the nurse practitioner should assess which of the following lab?

(A) AST/ALT

B Serum Creatinine

C-peptide

D Urinalysis

Question 33

1.5 Points

Clear selection

1.5 Points

When prescribing drugs with a narrow therapeutic index, what intervention does the provider take to decrease risk to the patient?

A Schedule drug administration intervals that exceed the drug’s half-life.

B Order the medication to be administered by the intravenous route.

CMonitor the patient’s plasma drug levels at regular intervals.

D Teach the patient that optimal outcomes will require adherence to the medication regimen.

Which of the following medications is considered the first-line to treat atrial fibrillation?

A Amiodarone

B Furosemide

Nitroglycerin

D) Digoxin

Question 31

Metformin is a primary choice of drug to treat hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes because it:

A Increases the release of insulin from beta cells

B Decreases peripheral glucose utilization

Substitutes for insulin usually secreted by the pancreas

Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver

The nurse practitioner is reviewing the glucose log of a Type 2 Diabetic patient. The NP noticed the glucose check before dinner is consistently elevated. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for this patient?

A Adjust lunchtime insulin dosing to improve coverage.

B Eliminate morning NPH dosing

Add a long-acting basal insulin dose at noon

Reduce calorie intake at lunchtime meal

Question 29

Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to treat a corneal ulcer?

A Vidarabine ointment

B Erythromycin ointment

Naphazoline solution

D) Sulfacetamide solution

1.5 Points

The nurse practitioner is prescribing a medication that has the potential for hepatotoxicity. What would be a priority action for the

NP?

A Order baseline liver function tests

B Check a BUN and creatinine before starting the med

Monitor the CBC periodically while on the medication

D Assess drug toxicity levels in one week

Question 27

1.5 Points

A 24 year-old patient presents with left ear pain and the nurse practitioner diagnosed otitis externa. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

A Medrol Dose Pack

(B) Penicillin PO

Debrox otic drops

D) Ciprofloxin otic drops

Which of the following elements is required when writing a complete and accurate prescription?

A Patient weight and medication cost

B Pharmacy name and phone number

Diagnosis code and insurance provider

D Medication name, dosage, and route

Question 24

Which of the following statements best defines the therapeutic index (TI) of a medication?

A A larger TI is safer than a smaller TI

B A smaller TI is safer than a larger TI

The TI leads to a longer half-life

D A larger volume distribution is a less desirable TI

1.5 Points

Which of the following is a common geriatric alteration that the nurse practitioner must consider when prescribing medication?

A Decreased gastric pH

B Decreased Gl motility and emptying

Increased GI blood flow

D Increased plasma protein binding

Question 22

1.5 Points

A pediatric patient developed a pruritic, dull red, maculopapular rash on the chest and neck after starting ampicillin. Which action is the most important to reduce the patient’s risk for injury?

A Discontinue the ampicillin

B Prescribe azithromycin

Give an antihistamine for the itching

D Order allergy testing

Question 19

Which class of angiotensin blocking drugs is most commonly associated with a nonproductive, nagging cough?

(A) Renin inhibitors

B ACE inhibitors

Angiotensin antagonists

D Calcium Channel Blockers

Question 20

Which of the following underlying conditions would be contraindicated when prescribing propranolol (Inderal)?

A Erectile dysfunction

B Type 2 diabetes

Supraventricular tachycardia

D) Asthma

1.5 Points

Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:

A After the second dose

B After four to five half-lives

When the patient feels the full effect of the drug

D) One hour after IV administration

Question 18

1.5 Points

When prescribing a statin HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, initial evaluation when starting the medication should include checking which of the following lab test?

(A) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

(B) Potassium

Bilirubin

D) Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

Which of the following is a side effect of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor such as Rivastigmine (Exelon)?

A Flu-like symptoms, constipation, restlessness.

B Dry mouth, tachycardia, pupil constriction, impotence.

Excessive sweating, tachycardia, pupil dilation

Nausea, dizziness, weight loss

Which of the following is a side effect of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor such as Rivastigmine (Exelon)?

A Flu-like symptoms, constipation, restlessness.

B Dry mouth, tachycardia, pupil constriction, impotence.

Excessive sweating, tachycardia, pupil dilation

D Nausea, dizziness, weight loss

Question 16

Statin drugs such as atorvastatin (Lipitor) and simvastatin (Zocor) inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme, thereby production of

A decreasing; cholesterol

B increasing: low-density lipoproteins

decreasing; high-density lipoproteins

D) decreasing; triglycerides

When selecting the anticoagulant options the patient history and preferences should be taken into account.

A True

B) False

1.5 Points

the

Clear selection

146 minutes remaining Ø

88 OF 100 QUESTIONS REMAINING

A True

B) False

Question 14

Match the mechanism of action to the correct class of anti-hypertensive medication.

Prompts

ACE Inhibitors

Answers

Select match

2 Beta Blockers

Thiazide Diuretics

Competitively inhibit Beta-1 receptors

Prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption

Which of the following is the correct format for a prescription being sent to the pharmacy?

A Lisinopril PO daily x 7 days, #7

B Lisinopril 20mg QD, Dispense 30

Lisinopril PO QD, Dispense 30, 3 refills

DLisinopril 10mg PO daily, Dispense 30, No Refills

Question 12

Jenny has type 2 diabetes and a high triglyceride level. She has been prescribed gemfibrozil (Lopid) to treat her hypertriglyceridemia. A history of which of the following might contraindicate the use of this drug?

A Gallbladder disease

B Reactive airway disease

CInflammatory disorders

D) Allergy to aspirin

Clear selection

1.5 Points

1.5 Points

Your patient follows up one week after being diagnosed and treated for depression with Fluoxetine (Prozac). He complains of an upset stomach and nausea. How should the NP respond?

A Order a workup for a new gastrointestinal problem

B Educate the patient that this is a common side effect and it should resolve within 2 weeks

Give the patient precautions for a viral illness and return in 1 week if not better

D Inform the patient that this is an abnormal side effect and stop the medication right away

Question 10

What is the antidote for heparin?

A Vitamin K

B Platelet infusion

Protamine sulfate

(D) Plasma exchange

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action for heparin?

A Directly inhibits thrombin without the need for antithrombin

B Inhibits the P2Y12 ADP receptor on platelets

Inhibits the activation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X

Binds to antithrombin resulting in the inhibition of factor II and X

Question 8

What is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin)?

A Vitamin K

B Platelet infusion

Protamine sulfate

D Plasma exchange

1.5 Points

Digitalis (digoxin) exerts its primary mechanical effect by the sodium-potassium pump on the myocardial cell membrane, which leads directly to intracellular sodium concentration.

A stimulating; increased

B) inhibiting; increased

stimulating; decreased

Dinhibiting; decreased

Question 6

Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:

A Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only

B Bypass the hepatic.circulation

Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little, if any, desired action

D Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms

1.5 Points

Mr. Morris complains of feeling down, loss of interest in activities, fatigue, restlessness, and decreased appetite. When discussing treatment options for him, you know that first-line medication treatment for depression is:

A Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)

B Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor (SNRI)

Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA)

(D) Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI)

Question 4

1.5 Points

Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day’s dosage is twice that of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:

A Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range

B Requires four to five half-lives to attain

Is influenced by renal function

D Minimizes the drug circulating to the target tissues

Question 89

Which of the following best describes pharmacokinetics?

The study of the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs on the body

B The study of the interactions between drugs and their receptors

The study of the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs in the body

The study of how drugs are manufactured and formulated for clinical use

Question 90

Upon reaching the brain, most antidepressant drugs affect

A amine neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and serotonin

B amino acids such as leucine and isoleucine

acetylcholine

D cerebral blood flow

307 Exam 3

1.5 Points

Matching 2 points

Match the abnormal placental condition with it’s definition

Marginal placenta previa

Morbidly adherant placenta

Complete placenta previa

Placental Abruption

The invasion of the placenta into the ut

Detachment of the placenta from the u

Abnormal placental implantation that completely

Abnormal placetal implantation that is opening

What are the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women?

A The percentage of fat differs between genders.

B Body temperature varies between genders.

Renal excretion is different between genders.

Muscle mass is greater in women.

Question 88

Tardive dyskinesia is often a concerning side effect of antipsychotic drugs because it can cause which of the following?

A muscle atrophy

B cardiac dysrhythmias

peripheral neuropathies

irreversible muscle movements

Which of the following best describes pharmacodynamics?

(A) The study of how the body affects a drug

B The study of how a drug affects the body

The study of how a drug is metabolized by the body

The study of how a drug is excreted by the body

Question 86

1.5 Points

A patient with a history of poorly controlled hypertension and a history of pelvic inflammatory disease two weeks ago presents for a contraception consult. Which of the following would the NP suggest?

A Vaginal ring

B Levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena)

Nexplanon

D Paragard IUD

Newer or second-generation antidepressants such as fluoxetine (Prozac), paroxetine (Paxil), and sertraline (Zoloft) selectively affect

reuptake at certain CNS synapses.

A dopamine

B acetylcholine

gama-amino butyric acid (GABA)

Question 84

1.5 Points

Patients taking relatively high doses of the more potent antipsychotics may experience catatonia, stupor, rigidity, tremors, and fever. These symptoms comprise a serious disorder known as:

A Serotonin syndrome

B Brown-Sequard syndrome

Charcot’s syndrome

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:

A Topical corticosteroids and emollients

B Topical corticosteroids only

Topical antipruritics

D Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations

Question 82

Which of the following is a key consideration when prescribing antibiotics to a patient?

A Selecting a broad-spectrum antibiotic

B Prescribing a high dose to ensure efficacy

Prescribing the antibiotic for the shortest effective duration

D Administering the antibiotic via the IV route whenever possible

Which of the following medications is a prokinetic agent that can be used to treat GERD by improving gastric emptying and reducing reflux?

A Famotidine (Pepcid)

B Omeprazole (Prilosec)

D Esomeprazole (Nexium)

Question 80

Treatment goals in prescribing should:

A Always be curative

B Be patient-centered

Be convenient for the provider

D Focus on the cost of therapy

1.5 Points

A 44-year-old smoker with a history of migraines with aura has been on birth control pills in the past and wants to start them again today. How do you approach her plan of care?

(A)

Educate the patient on the common side effects of oral contraceptives, send in a prescription, and have her follow up in a

month.

B Inform her that she is not a candidate due to her co-morbidities and offer her the Levonorgestrel IUD.

Tell her she is approaching menopause and does not need to worry about contraception.

D Offer her the birth control patch instead because it is safer for her with her medical history.

Question 92

At what age is the threshold that contraception becomes contraindicated for smokers?

A 30

B 35

D 50

1.5 Points

Question 93

What is the mechanism of action for the H2 Receptor antagonist?

A covers and protects ulceration site

B) neutralizes stomach acid

Cinhibit H2 receptors on the parietal cells

D releases proinflammatory mediators

Question 94

Which drug class selectively antagonizes serotonin 5-HT3 receptors reducing nausea and vomiting?

A ondansetron (Zofran)

B) benadryl

C) metoclopramide (Reglan)

All of the above

In patients with known cardiac disease and the elderly, it is important to initiate levothyroxine slower and at lower doses than in a younger adult without cardiac disease?

A True

B False

Question 96

What hormones are being suppressed with contraceptives?

A FSH & LH

BTSH & Prolactin

Estrogen & Progesterone

D GnRH & Testosterone

Clear selection

1.5 Points

In patients with known cardiac disease and the elderly, it is important to initiate levothyroxine slower and at lower doses than in a younger adult without cardiac disease?

A True

B False

Question 96

What hormones are being suppressed with contraceptives?

A FSH & LH

BTSH & Prolactin

Estrogen & Progesterone

D GnRH & Testosterone

Question 97

Which of the following is the best birth control option for a post-partum breastfeeding patient?

A Birth control is not needed when breastfeeding

B Combined hormonal contraceptives

C Progestin-only method

D Estrogen only method

Question 98

Which of the following medications is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance?

A Tramadol

(B) Diazepam

C Alprazolam

D Oxycodone

Clear selection

1.5 Points

Advanced Pharmacology and Prescriptive Practice – NURS 307 Exam 3 (Spring 2025)

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